This is a proof based problem added for learning purposes and does not accept submissions.
You can view the solution by clicking on the solution tab.
You can view the solution by clicking on the solution tab.
In a certain country, a dollar is $100$ cents and coins have denominations $1, 2, 5, 10, 20, 50$ and $100$ cents. Suppose that one can make $A$ cents using exactly $B$ coins. Prove that it is possible to make $B$ dollars using exactly $A$ coins.
Let $a_k$ be the number of $k$-cent coins used to make $A$ cents with $B$ coins.
\[a_1+a_2+a_5+a_{10}+a_{20}+a_{50}+a_{100}=B\]
\[a_1+2a_2+5a_5+10a_{10}+20a_{20}+50a_{50}+100a_{100}=A\]
Now, we use $ka_k$ $\frac{100}{k}$-cent coins for each possible value of $k$.
\[\text{The number of coins used}=a_1+2a_2+5a_5+10a_{10}+20a_{20}+50a_{50}+100a_{100}=A\]
\[\text{The amount of cents}=100(a_1+a_2+a_5+a_{10}+a_{20}+a_{50}+a_{100})=100B=B\text{ dollars}\]
$\therefore$ We can use $A$ coins to form $B$ dollars.